Atmospheric Waste Isoflurane Concentrations Using Conventional Equipment and Rat Anesthesia Protocols. Contemporary Topics 41 (2): 10.
200,000 healthcare professionals, including 50,000 veterinarians and veterinary technicians, are exposed routinely to waste anesthetic gases. Some studies have suggested that waste anesthetic agents may have adverse health effects, such as neurologic and reproductive dysfunction, hepatic and renal toxicity, and neoplasia. This study investigated levels isoflurane in the air in 3 different scenarios after using a system which consisted of a precision isoflurane vaporizer which could feed either into an induction bos or a face mask designed for rats. Both face mask and induction box terminated into an activated charcoal canister for passive gas scavenging. Experiment 1 addressed the impact of anesthetic protocol, passive gas scavenging, work-area design, work practices on waste isoflurane emisions. Experiment 2 guaged the effectiveness of passive gas scavenging canisters under normal use conditions. Experiment 3 assessed canister emissions under continuous use. In Experiment 1, atmospheric isoflurane levels in rodent procedure rooms depended on anesthetic concentration, carrier gas flow, and air turnover. Isoflurane escaped at higher levels from the induction box when the rat was removed to be placed in the face mask (gas flow was not turned off), at the subject-mask interface, or at the gasket of the induction box. Residual isoflurane was detected with 22 room air exchanges hourly but not with 43 exchanges. In Experiment 2, 11 of 35 (31%) used canisters that had not reached their maximum use life as defined by the manufacturer's specifications (50g deposited halogenated anesthetic) were emitting 5ppm or more into the air. 88% exhibited this trait after 50% of use-life had passed. Readings from 2 canister exceeded 100ppm. Therefore, the efficacy fo individual canisters is unpredictable and aggressive monitoring should be performed. In Experiment 3, low level emissions were detected in 6 out of 9 (75%) canisters at 25% of their use life. Emissions for 7 canisters varied up and down (5-25ppm). The degree of breakthrough was the result of the circuit configuration and the rate gas throughput.
Questions:
1. What precautions can be taken to minimize exposure to waste anesthetic gases?
2. How can air be monitored for isoflurane levels?
Answers:
1. a. Reduce anesthetic concentrations and carrier gas flow
b. Increase air turnover (exchanges)
c. Check equipment for leaks
d. Combine passive and active scavenging systems. Place canisters in fume hood during use. Attach evacuation lines to face masks.
e. Turn off gas/air to induction chamber when removing rat.
f. Monitor air concentrations of isoflurane.
2. Commercially available, portable, ambient air analyzer containing a single-beam infrared spectrophotometer

 Strain Variation of Immature Female Rats in Response to Various Superovulatory Hormone Preparations and Routes of Administration. Contemporary Topics 41 (2): 18.
This study examined the response of Sprague Dawley, FBNF1, and F344 rats to various superovulatory hormone treatments. Specifically, hormone treatments were evaluated for: % mated, % ovulated, total oocytes/female, and % fertilized. Results indicated PMSG + HCG as the most effective method to elicit superovulatory responses according to the above criteria. Authors found that different strains of rats have varying degrees of hormone sensitivity and response to different superovlatory protocols.
Questions:
1. Name the most common method for mice superovulation.
2. Which of the following rats are OUTBRED?
a. SD (Sprague Dawley) c. BN (Brown Norway) e. a and b
b. Wistar d. F344 (Fischer 344) f. c and d
3. Which of the following rats are HOODED?
a. Zucker c. LEC (Long Evans Cinnamon) e. all except d
b. Brattleboro d. ACI (Amer. Cancer Institute)f. all of above
4. Which rat is the animal of choice for many experiments involving superovulation by using FSH delivered via osmotic mini-pumps?
a. F344 c. BN e. none of the above b. SD
d. Wistar
5. T/F: Authors found that LH appears to be important in stimulating ovulation in both outbred SD rats and inbred F344 rats.
Answers:
1. Administration of 5 IU PMSG via IP injection, followed by IP injection of 5 IU HCG roughly 48 hours later.
2. e
3. f
4. b
5. True

 Determination of a humane endpoint in the L1210 model of murine leukemia. Contemporary Topics 41 (2): 24.
The study examined an alternate end-point to death or moribund appearance for the frequently used L1210 model of murine leukemia. L1210 leukemia is most widely used models for the study of leukemogenesis in-vitro and in-vivo. The model is also used to evaluate new drugs or drug protocols that are useful in the treatment of human disease. L1210 lymphocytic leukemia cells were injected intravenously into BDF1 recipients. Animals were observed for every 12 h intervals for the first 2 days and every 6 h intervals thereafter to score for physical/behavioral changes. Changes in physical and behavioral characteristics were noted in the mice approximately 7 days after tumor cell inoculation and 24 h before death. The earliest sign being a hunched posture followed by other characteristics including decreased activity, increased facial swelling, ears in backward position, abdominal swelling, squinting eyes and lobored breathing. Facial swelling , ears pulled back and spuinted eyes with white discoloration are likely due to the presence of edema. Abdominal swelling is likely due to enlarged liver and spleen resulting from leukemic cell infiltration. In conclusion, use of these early endpoint may help reduce the stress on the animals without compromising scientific outcomes in experiments using this or related preclinical models of cancer.
Questions:
1. What is the earliest sign that indicate pain/distress in L1210 model of murine leukemia?
2. True/False: Changes in physical and behavioral characteristics were noted in L1210 murine leukemia model approximately 15 days after tumor cell inoculation and 3 days before death.
3. True/False: One of the clinical sign seen is abdominal swelling that is resulting from enlarged liver and spleen from leukemic cell infiltration.
4. True/False: Presence of edema in L1210 murine leukemia model is manifested in three symptoms mainly facial swelling , ears pulled back and spuinted eyes with white discoloration.
Answers:
1. Hunched posture.
2. False. Changes in physical and behavioral characteristics were noted in the mice approximately 7 days after tumor cell inoculation and 24 h before death..
3. True.
4. True.

 Operative Technique for Safe Pulmonary Lobectomy in Sprague-Dawley Rats. Contemporary Topics 41 (2): 28.
The study was undertaken to develop a safe and effective operative technique for thoracotomy and lobectomy in the male rat under inhalation anesthesia and postoperative delivery of anti-angiogenic growth factor as an anti-neoplastic agent. Anti-angiogenic growth factor decreases the growth of xenographs of melanoma, lung carcinoma, ovarian carcinoma, and gliomas. Anti-angiogenic growth factor also inhibits the growth factor dependent mutagenises of human endothelial cells. The vehicle DMSO (Dimethylsulfoxide) and anti-angiogenic growth factor were delivered IP. All rats underwent surgery whether they received the compound with vehicle or the vehicle alone. The approach to the pulmonary system was from the right anterolateral chest, through the 4th intercostal space. The right middle lobe was identified, isolated and clip ligated using a medium hemoclip. Wound closure was accomplished using 3-0 nylon in a multi-layer fashion using a simple interrupted suture pattern. Advantages to inhalation anesthesia include increased control over the depth and duration of anesthesia, and the elimination of agents, which require minimum biotransformation, metabolism or excretion. Intubation in rats is normally accomplished using a 14-20 gauge over the needle catheter. In the present study isoflurane anesthesia was delivered via a facemask. Facemasks can allow some of the anesthetic gas to escape into the room and expose personnel during positive pressure ventilation. Because intubation required a greater level of skill and because the time per animal undergoing positive pressure ventilation was less than 5 minutes, the decision was made to use a facemask over endotracheal intubation. Mechanical ventilation was maintained at a rate of 20 breaths per minute while the chest cavity was open. This is lower than the 60-100 breaths per minute recommended by others. The lower rate was used to allow the surgeon adequate time to perform the lung resection between breaths. Analgesia was provided by ketoprofen preemptively and local lidocaine infiltration along the incision. Lidocaine has a rapid onset of action (2-3 minutes) but a short duration time (60-90 minutes). Bupivicaine has a slower onset of action (15-20 minutes) and a longer duration time (4-6 hours).
Questions:
1. What is a Xenograph?
A. a graft between two animals of a different species
B. A graft between two animals of the same species
C. A graft performed in the same animal to a different location.
D. A new form of polygraph technique
2. Advantages to inhalation anesthesia include
A. Better control over depth
B. Better control over duration
C. Quicker post-operative recovery time
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
Answers:
1. A, 2. E

 The RAG 2 Mouse Model for Xenografted Human Oral Squamous Cell Carcinoma. Contemporary Topics 41 (2): 31.
Inbred strains of mice with a reduced or absent immunologic response are most commonly used as models of oral squamous cell carcinoma. In this study CD-17-RAG 2, NMRI-SCID, and Swiss nude mice were implanted with two different tumor cell lines, XF354 and UM-SCC-14C. None of the nude mice showed tumor growth of either cell line. One out of five SCIDs grew the XF354 line and one out of five SCIDs grew the UM-SCC-14C. XF354 was the fastest growing cell line in all mouse strains. Five out of five RAG 2 mice grew the XF354 line and two out of five RAG 2 mice grew the UM-SCC-14C tumor cell line. Therefore, in this study the most successful xenografted tumor model was the combination of RAG 2 mice and XF 354 tumor cells, with an engraftment rate of 95%. Tumors from this model were also easily identified by light microscopy. Thus, the RAG 2 mouse and XF 354 tumor cell line can be recommended as a tumor model of human oral squamous cell carcinoma.
Complete the following table.
Questions:
Characteristic NUDE SCID RAG1
Type of mutation
Primary Immune Defects
Animal Breeding
Characteristic NUDE SCID RAG1
Answers:
NUDE = spontaneous, T-cell deficiency, maintained by heterozygous matings or heterozygous females mating with homozygous male.
SCID = spontaneous, B&T cell deficiency, maintained by homozygous sibling matings
RAG1 = targetsd, B & T cell deficinecy, maintained by homozygous sibling matings.

 A Review of Treatments for the Eradication of Pinworm Infections from Laboratory Rodent Colonies. Contemporary Topics 41 (2): 36.
Oxyurids are common contaminants of both SPF and conventional rodent colonies. This paper reviews the biology and life cycles of oxyurid parasites of laboratory rodents, mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects of commonly used treatments, and treatment modalities, both historical and recent. Common oxyurids (pinworms) of laboratory animals include: Syphacia spp. S. obelata = themouse pinworm, but also reported in the rat, Mongolian gerbil and Syrian hamster. S. muris = the rat pinworm but also reported in the mouse, Mongolian gerbil and Syrian hamster. S. mesocricetus = the pinworm of the Syrian hamster. Aspiculuris tetraptera = a mouse pinworm, but also reported in rats. Dentostomella translucida =the pinworm of Mongolian gerbil. A. tetraptera , D. translucida and Syphacia spp. have been reported in wild rodents as well. A pinworm of the guinea pig has not been described in literature. Only S. obelata has been rarely described in humans. Prevalence of pinworms is multi-factorial dependent. Male rodents tend to carry higher parasite loads than females, and young animals carry higher worm burdens than do adult rodents. Athymic mice have an increased susceptibility to infection, and some inbred strains of mice (AKR/LwNicr, DBA/2J, DBA/2An, and C3H/Cum) are more susceptible to infection. Lifecycles Pinworms are monoxenous parasites that are transmitted through ingestion of embryonated eggs. Syphacia spp. Reside in the cecum or anterior colon. Females lay eggs at the anus and eggs adhere to the perianal skin. After 5-20 h after release eggs are infectve. Prepatent period lasts from 7-8d (S. muris); 11-15 d (S. obvelata); or 8-15d. (S. mesocricetus). Syphacia spp can embryonate on the host and retroinfect the animal by migrating back into the body. A.tetraptera. Reside in the crypts of Lieberk?hn in the proximal colon after hatching in the cecum. Eggs are deposited in the distal colon, are excreted in the feces, but are not infective until 5-8 d. later. Prepatent period last from 21-25 d. and egg release follows an intermittent cycle. D.translucida. Reside in the proximal one third of the small intestine and occasionally in the stomach. Its eggs are excreted in the feces as well, and it has a prepatent period of 25-29 days. Environmental factors: Persistence of pinworm eggs in the environment is of major concern, and stringent sanitation methods are often undertaken. Most of these measures are based on characteristics of the human pinworm (Enterobius vermicularis). Only a few reports document rodent pinworms in the environment. Tape tests are effective for Syphacia spp, but not for A.tetraptera or D.translucida as their eggs are passed in the feces. Regular removal of fecal material should be effective in removing embryonated ova of A.tetraptera and D.translucida as their eggs are not infective for 5-8 d. after passage. Eggs from S. muris, A.tetraptera and D.translucida embryonate in water. S.obvelata do not. Diagnostics Direct exam of colonic or cecal contents is the "gold standard" of diagnosis in mice. Other methods include the perianal tape test (88% sensitive for S. muris); the anal swab technique, and fecal flotation. Keep in mind which spp deposit eggs on the anal region and which pass eggs in the feces. Research Effects Pinworm infections are considered to be mild pathogens (or non-pathogens) in immuno-competant mice. Focal granulomas of the cecum or colon have been described in rats and mice. In both rats and mice, pinworm infections can retard growth, and various methods of specific research interference have been decribed. Treatment and Eradication strategies Historic: 1950's - several compounds with an antihelmintic effect were used with varying degrees of success. 1960's through now, GABA-agnostic piperazine compounds were used (and were more effective than the 50's treatments). Organophosphates have also been used, but have small margins of safety and cause interference with research. Nicotinic agnostic agents such as levamisole and pyrantel have also been used. Current treatment is based on 2 primary agents: #1- Avermectins are macrocyclic lactones, produced by actinomycete Streptomyces avermitilis. Their method of action is to paralyze parasites by increasing the CL permeability through the glutamate-gated ion channel. Ivermectin is the primary avermectin cited in literature, and is reported being administered by the oral route, topical, and parenteral treatments, all have been effective for an extended period (up to six months) of time, but required direct contact of animals. Dosing with water resulted in reductions in water consumption. Animals with compromise blood-brain barriers demonstrated hypersensitivity or toxic effects from ivermectin. These animals were largely found to be deficient in the protein P-glycoprotein . This protein functions as a drug transport pump across the blood-brain barrier. Young mice and rats are susceptible to toxicosis due to the post-natal closure of the blood-brain barrier in these spp. Newer avermectins (Selmectin and Doramectin) althou! gh promising due to their successful use in other spp with blood-brain barrier issues, need additional work prior to their use in rodent spp. #2 Benzimidazoles - bind to nematode beta-tubulin and inhibit microbtube functions. Fenbendazole is the primary benzimidazole reported, although albendazole, mebendazole and thiabendazole have all been used effectively in pinworm eradication. Fenbendazole is adulticidal, larvacidal and ovicidal and has been used effectively as a feed formulation treatment for pinworms since 1984. It has alarge margin of safety and appears to have minimal effects on research at therapeutic doses. Eradication recommendations: No one treatment strategy stands out as the "best". The gold standard remains as rederivation via hysterectomy, C-section or embryo transfer. The benefits are enormous, but the process is not practical for all facilities, especially if the facility is already relatively pathogen free. The authors believe caging modalities make little to no difference in the type of treatment chosen, and that all animals in an affected housing unit should be treated. Treatment recommendations of the authors following literature review is : 1) the use of feed containing 150 ppm Fenbendazole for at least three 7-day periods over at least 5 weeks combined with environmental decontamination. 2) At least one cycle of environmental decontamination should be provided with the removal of potentially infective materials and fomites until after the first week of treatment has been completed 3) Effectiveness of treatment should be evaluated by necropsy of colony and susceptible sentinel animals, and by gross and microscopic evaluation of gastrointestinal contents. 4) Education of animal care and research personnel will play an important role. 5) The authors expressed concern over the common phenomenon in the clinical veterinary world of anthelmintic resistance, and encourages consideration of such with the selection of treatment regimens.
Questions:
1. What are the 2 mouse pinworms?
2. What is the guinea pig pinworm?
3. What species of oxyurids are you most likely to diagnosis with the perianal tape test and why?
4. What species of oxyurids require fecal examination for diagnosis and why?
5. Why is fenbendazole considered the superior treatment agent by the authors?
Answers:
1. S. obelata AND Aspiculuris tetraptera
2. There is not one reported to date.
3. Syphacia spp. - the females lay their eggs directly on the perianal region where the eggs adhere.
4. A.tetraptera or D.translucida as heir eggs are passed in the feces.
5. Fenbendazole is adulticidal, larvacidal and ovicidal , it has a wide margin of safety and appears to have minimal effects on research at therapeutic doses.

 Comparison of Body Temperature Changes Due to the Administration of Ketamine-Acepromazine and Tiletamine-Zolazepam Anesthetics in Cynomologus Macaques. Contemporary Topics 41 (2): 47.
Two commonly used Anesthetic combinations, Kertamine-Acepromazine and Tiletamine-Zolazepam, were compared to identify their effect upon body temperature in Cyno Macaques. This study was conducted by using subcutaneously placed telemetry device to measure baseline temperature data for three days before administering anesthesia to establish diurnal temperature pattern. Each of the fifteen animals in the two groups were given either of the anesthetic combinations. Body temperatures were recorded 15 min intervals. Both groups had marked decrease in body temperature, with the greatest decrease in the tiletamine--zolazepam group. Both groups had post-anesthesia elevations in body temperature that often lasted for more than 24 hrs postinduction.
Questions:
1. What is a Biological Rhythm? List four Biological rhythms.
2. What is the advantage of Telazole over Ketamine?
Answers:
1. A biological rhythm is any cyclic change in the level of bodily chemical or function. Circadian, Diurnal, Ultradian and Infradian rhythms.
2. Greater potency allows for the administration of smaller volume. The occurrence of cyclohexylamine-induced seizures are well controlled in comparison to Ketamine. (Anesthesia and Analgesia in lab animal, pp 238).

 The use of fecal markers to facilitate sample collection in group-housed cats. Contemporary Topics 41 (2): 51.
This study compares various combinations of commercially available food colorings known as baker's pastes and colored glitter as fecal markers in group housed cats. Singly housed cats often display sterotypic behaviors,are less outgoing and withdrawn from human handlers when compared with group housed cats. Singly housed cats are more prone to stress particularly since they are a predatory species possessing heightened "fight or flight" responses. Cats should minimally be housed in pairs or preferably in same sex or harem groups. Studies requiring frequent collection of stool samples include evaluation of fecal steroid hormones such as estradiol and cortisol. Use of fecal loops to collect samples for long term studies is considered to be very stressful for cats. Investigators have used plastic beads, corn kernels, and other grains for ID of feces and to determine GI transit times in large animal species. Beads have been shown to have inconsistent passage and pyloric retention in cats. Radioactive fecal markers include barium sulfate, polyethylene glycol and carmine. The authors used various combinations of baker's paste colors and various methods to hide the bitter taste of the pastes to find the best combinations for consistent fecal coloration and palatability. They also evaluated several colors of plastic glitter. No adverse effects of any kind were seen with any test items. GI endoscopy was performed in one cat that was given glitter to verify that no material was retained in the GIT. The 2 best ingredients to disguise the bitter taste of the colorings were fresh dairy cream and canned nonfat evaporated milk using 1 part food coloring to 10 parts milk product. (No cats showed signs of lactose intolerance and lactose free products did not disguise the taste of the colorings.) The colored milk was mixed in 2 tsp. of canned Feline Science Diet (SD) maintenance chicken and liver flavor food. Crushed chicken livers improved the palatability when added. A few cats developed an aversion to colored food but readily drank colored milk, 1 part coloring to 30 parts milk. Cats fed Laboratory Feline diet did not have as consistent coloration of stools, so this diet was replaced by SD. Glitter was mixed in a gruel with the same SD canned food and evaporated milk Paste colorings are more potent than liquid colorings found in grocery stores. Some colors were not apparent in the feces due to presumed masking by fecal pigments (bile and urobilin). Long term feeding of any food additive can lead to hypersensitivity (not seen in this study). Some liquid food colorings can contain propylene glycol which can cause dose dependent Heinz-body formation and decreased RBC lifespan in cats. Glitter containing aluminum was not used, only non-toxic plastic glitter. Since the process of digestion can remove some color from glitter making it appear silver or gold, the authors recommend not to use silver and gold glitter at the same time as colored glitters. The authors recommend mixing fresh colored milk weekly and avoiding the use of carrageenan containing products. Carrageenan is a jelling agent that can affect coloration of stools. Food should not be served on paper plates because they can absorb some of the coloring. They recommend that cats be singly housed for 10-14 days prior to group housing to evaluate individual differences in and reliability of stool coloration. Another recommendations is to use corn cob bedding as litter because it is easily removed from stools.
Questions:
What is the genus and species of the domestic cat?
What products most improved the palatability of baker's pastes?
What is carrageenan?
What are the effects of propylene glycol on cats?
Answers:
Felis cattus
Chicken liver, fresh dairy cream, canned nonfat evaporated milk
A jelling agent present in canned milk products
Heinz body formation and decreased RBC lifespan

 Horizontal transmission of recombinant vaccinia virus in Strain 13 guinea pigs. Contemporary Topics 41 (2): 57.
The authors conducted this study to determine if horizontal transmission of recombinant vaccinia virus vaccine occurs post inoculation in Strain 13 guinea pigs, and if so, to what extent. Previously, the animal facility had housed guinea pigs SC inoculated with recombinant vaccine viruses in isolation from other animals because of the possibility of viral shedding and transmission post vaccination. However, there was no literature support for the presumption of postvaccination viral shedding. Consequently, the investigators performed a study to test this hypothesis. Twelve guinea pigs were subjected to 3 SC inoculations with recombinant vaccinia virus at 3-4 wk intervals; an additional 36 naive animals were either cohoused with vaccinnees, housed below vaccinees, or housed across from or downwind from vaccinees. At the completion of the study, all naive animals were seronegative to vaccinia virus; the authors concluded that horizontal transmission of recombinant vaccinia virus does not occur. OTHER FACTS: Vaccinia virus is a ds DNA virus belonging to the Poxviridae family. Within this family is the Orthopoxvirus genus comprised of variola (smallpox) and vaccinia viruses. Vaccinia is not associated with any naturally occurring disease in humans, a feature that contributed to the use of vaccinia virus as a vector for foreign genes and its use in vaccinating humans against viral pathogens.
Questions:
1. T/F In a recent publication, it was found that recombinant vaccinia virus could be transmitted horizontally between strain 13 guinea pigs housed in the same room.
2. Members of the Poxviridae family have the following:
a. ds DNA
b. ss DNA
c. ds RNA
d. ss RNA
e. none of the above; it is a prion
Answers:
1. F
2. a

 Pulmonary Masses in a Tuberculin Skin Test-Negative Olive Baboon. Contemporary Topics 41 (2): 61.
This article presents an interesting clinical case involving an Olive Baboon (Papio hamadryas anubis) that had recently been shipped to the reporting institution from a non-commercial source. The baboon had been wild caught one year previously but did not breed and was thus culled from the original institution's colony. The receiving institution put the animal through its usual quarantine protocol which included physical examination, CBC, chemistry, fecal flotation, fecal smear, rectal cultures, serial i.d. tuberculin tests and thoracic radiographs. On physical examination the animal was noted to be tachypnic (RR - 72) and had increased lung sounds in all lung fields. A mass was also noted in the cranial abdomen. Thoracic radiographs revealed increased density in all lung fields and a radioopaque mass was noted on the left side. In addition, the right lung fields had increased opacity throughout. An abdominal radiograph revealed hepatosplenomegaly. Abnormal findings on CBC and chemistry included an increased WBC count and increased ALP, ALT and AST values. The fecal smear, flotation and culture were all normal. Due to the poor prognosis, the animal was euthanized and a necropsy was performed. The lungs contained 2 intact cysts and the liver contained 5 intact cysts. The right apical lung lobe was collapsed and appeared to contain a ruptured cyst. The spleen was approximately 4 - 5 times the normal size. The cysts were collected in formalin and histopathology was performed. The cysts were multilaminated and a diagnosis of hydatidosis was made. Hydatids are the larval stage of Echinococcus granulosus, the tapeworm whose definitive host is usually a canid (fox, wolf, dog, dingo, coyote). Echinococcus granulosus is found worldwide but is uniquely identified by its unilocular hydatid cyst. E. granulosus has an indirect lifecycle in which the adult lives in the bowel of the definitive host. Eggs are passed in the feces of the host and ingested by the intermediate host where they develop into oncospheres in the intestinal tract. These oncospheres then travel via veins and lymphatics and encyst in tissues (usually liver and lung). The cysts then go on to produce protoscolices which, when ingested by the definitive host, develop into adult tapeworms. The material in the cysts can also be infective if the cyst is opened and a protoscolix is deposited into an appropriate environment, thus, there is a concern for human health when performing necropsies on infected animals. Two diagnostic tests exist for the diagnosis of hydatidosis in humans. The first test is an immunoblot assay which has a 91% sensitivity for E. granulosus of the liver and a 100% specificity for Echinococcus infection. The assay will cross-react with serum from people infected with E. multilocularis or E. vogeli. The second test is an enzyme immunoassay which is used to differentiate between E. granulosus and E. multilocularis. This test has an accuracy rate of 95%. Serum from the infected baboon and serum from three healthy baboons was submitted to the CDC for testing. Both the immunoblot assay and enzyme immunoassay confirmed the diagnosis of E. granulosus in the infected animal. The three healthy animals had negative results.
Questions:
1) What is the genus and species of the olive baboon?
2) To what family does this animal belong?
3) T or F, Echinococus granulosa has a direct lifecycle.
4) Name the genus and species of tapeworm that infects humans that have eaten infected beef.
Answers:
1) Papio hamadryas anubis
2) Family = Cercopithecidae
3) F, The lifecycle of Echinococcus granulosa is INDIRECT.
4) Taenia saginata ("pork" tapeworm = Taenia solium)