Occupational Health and Safety in the Care and Use of Research Animals [OHSCURA]



1.  What does NRC stand for?


Organization for which NRC operates?

National Research Council


National Academy of Engineering and the National Academy of Sciences

2.  List 4 major NRC reports pertaining to guidance in environmental health & safety of lab workers.

Prudent Practices (PP) for Handling Hazardous Chemicals in Laboratories (1981); PP for Disposal of Chemicals from Laboratories (1983); Biosafety in the Laboratory:  PP for the Handling and Disposal of Infectious Materials (1989); PP in the Laboratory:  Handling and Disposing of Chemicals (1995).

3.  What does IRAC stand for?

Interagency Research Animal Committee (asked NRC to write book at top of page)

4.  What does PRIM&R stand for?

Public Responsibility in Medicine and Research

5.  What does ARENA stand for?

Applied Research Ethics National Association


Chapter 1:  Introduction, Overview, and Recommendations

1.  What does OSHA stand for?

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

2.  What does EPA stand for?

Environmental Protection Agency

3.  What are the basic concepts that determine the effectiveness of an occupational health & safety program?

Knowing the hazard; avoiding & controlling exposures; training and education; rules & guidelines; consistency; recording keeping & monitoring; commitment & coordination.

4.  What are the 5 institutional functions needed for an OHS program?

Animal care & use; research; environmental health & safety; occupational health; administration & management

5.  What % of people with pre-existing allergies might develop animal allergies?


6.  List key elements of OHS program.

Administrative procedures; facility design & operation; exposure control; education & training; occupational health; equipment performance; information management; emergency procedures; program evaluation.

7.  List factors to be considered in performing a risk assessment of employees with animal contact.

Animal contact; exposure intensity; exposure frequency; physical & biol hazards from animal; hazardous properties of agents used in protocol; employee susceptibility; occupational health hx of an employee doing similar work.

8.  Who is ultimately responsible for an institution’s OHS program?

Senior official of an institution

9.  Objective of an OHS program?

To minimize risks of occupational injury & illness by controlling or eliminating hazards in the workplace.

10.  T/F  NRC doesn’t recommend serum collection/storage as standard components of an OHS program.


11.  T/F  NRC does recommend a PE as the principal surveillance tool for periodic health evaluations.

False; NRC recommends a careful hx based on knowledge of workplace risks.  A PE is done when symptoms of work-related illness becomes evident during episodic health evaluation.


Chapter 2:  Program Design & Management

1.  What is the goal of an OHS program?  What should the program focus be?

Goal – to prevent occupational injury & illness; Focus – control of hazards & reduction of risks as opposed to merely satisfying regulations

2.  List the 7 basic concepts of an effective OHS program.

Knowing the hazards; avoiding/controlling exposures; training & education; rules & guidelines; consistency; record keeping & monitoring; commitment & coordination.

3.  Who is responsible/accountable for design of OHS program?  Who has ultimate responsibility?

*Institution (represented by senior official or an authorized body), program managers, program implementers, employees


*Ultimate responsibility

4.  What are the responsibilities of the institution?

Understand the issues; provide guidance; establish/support institutional policies; authority to provide resources; bring together program managers/implementers.

5.  Program managers can include whom?

Health professionals; safety professionals; veterinarians; animal-facility managers or supervisors; research directors & scientists; lab supervisors; human resource & finance personnel; legal advisers; environmental experts; facility engineers.

6.  What is a safety program implementer’s key responsibility?  Other responsibilities?

Train is key responsibility.  Other – providing appropriate PPE; providing appropriate facilities; ensuring compliance of subordinate staff with established procedures & practices.

7.  What are main activities an institution that uses animals is responsible for?

Animal care & use; research; environmental health & safety; occupational health; administration & management.

8.  T/F  Institutions typically choose to address the exposures that are causing the greatest current costs.


9.  List 3 types of control/prevention strategies for controlling OHS risks (occupational illness/injury).

Primary prevention – control/eliminate hazards; Secondary prevention – premorbid case detection; Tertiary prevention – case finding & disease management.

10.  Who is responsible for ID of hazards in the workplace?

Everyone – supervisors, managers, investigators, employees.

11.  What does MSDS stand for?

Material Safety Data Sheets

12.  What does NIOSH stand for?

National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health

13.  Define risk vs. hazard.

Risk - measure if the likelihood of a consequence.  Hazard - inherent danger in a material or system.

14.  What is the principal objective of an OHS program?

To reduce to an acceptable level the risk assoc’d with using materials or systems that might have inherent danger.

15.  What are some institutional sources about worker health and safety?

See Table 2-1, p. 27.  Worker compensation, first report of injury/illness, OSHA 200 log, first-aid log, occupational health log, adverse-rxn reports.

16.  Define worker compensation.

The insurance system maintained by an institution to cover the medical costs & replace lost wages of workers with work-related illness/injury.

17.  What is the Supplementary Data System (SDS)?

Fed Bureau of Labor Statistics receives data from 35 states categorizing & reporting injuries/illnesses that qualify for worker comp.  This database is the SDS.

18.  What is the OSHA 200 log and who requires this?

Most institutions are required by law to maintain a log of work-related illness/injury;  U.S. Dept of Labor.

19.  Define injury vs. illness.

Injuries – incidents that are instantaneous (bite, kick, needlestick).

Illnesses – conditions arising from noninstantaneous events (carpal-tunnel syndrome, animal allergies, dermatitis).

20.  When is an injury recordable?

If it results in:  death, loss of consciousness, lost work time, placement on restricted duty, treatment other than first aid.

21.  What is required to be prepared & kept by employers for each OSHA 200 log entry?

Supplementary Record of Occupational Injury or Illness (OSHA Form 101).

22.  List some gov’t agencies that could be used as sources of info for developing a safety program and ID potential hazards.

NIOSH, OSHA, CDC, NIH, NADC (National Animal Disease Center), ARS (Agricultural Research Service), APHIS.


Chapter 3:  Physical, Chemical, and Protocol-Related Hazards

1.  List 3 most common species involved with bites among general population.

Dogs, cats, rodents

2.  Give some examples of diseases transmitted through animal bites.

Rabies, CHV-1 infections, hantavirus infections, cat-scratch fever, tularemia, rat-bite fever, brucellosis, orf

3.  What does NFPA stand for?

National Fire Protection Association

4.  List fire classifications.

Class A (cloth, wood, paper)

Class B (flammable gases & liquids)

Class C (electric equipment)

Class D (combustible metals)

5.  How are Class B liquids further classified?


According to flash point (FP) = lowest temp at which liquid will produce vapor sufficient to propagate a flame.

Flammable liquids = FP <100°F

Combustible liquids = 100°F < FP <200°F

6.  T/F  Compressed gas cylinders should be secured at all times.


7.  List classification of UV radiation by wavelength.

Table 3-1, p. 37

UV-A = 320-400 nm (black-light region)

UV-B = 280-320 nm (erythemal region)

UV-C = 100-280 nm (germicidal region)

8.  What is a potential hazard of UV radiation in the presence of chlorinated solvents?

UV radiation reacts with vapors of chlorinated solvents to produce phosgene, a potent lung irritant.

9.  What precautions must employees take if working in the presence of UV radiation?

Eyes & skin should be protected against UV exposure.

10.  What does “laser” stand for?

Light amplification by the stimulated emission of radiation

11.  What does ANSI stand for?

American National Standards Institute

12.  List classification of lasers.  What is this classification based on?

Class I:  doesn’t emit hazardous level of radiation when operating normally.

Class II:  Low-power, not enough power to injure accidentally but can cause injury if beam viewed for extended periods.

Class IIIa:  High power, can cause injury if beam concentrated with viewing device.

Class IIIb:  Produce injury if viewed directly; beam also dangerous if reflected off a mirror-like surface.

Class IV:  Class III + a fire hazard

Classification based on power level & hazard potential.

13.  What is the major hazard associated with lasers?

Major hazard is related to beam (burns, eye damage, lacerations, fires).  Also aerosols, fumes, toxic gases, electric shock.

14.  What does NSC stand for?

National Safety Council


15.  What is the criteria for classifying radiation as ionizing?

Radiation must have enough energy to remove electrons from atoms to create ions.

16.  Define and list types of particulate radiation.

Composed of particles that are of atomic origin.  Alpha (a) beta (b).

17.  Define and list types of nonparticulate radiation.

Electromagnetic radiation with very short wavelength; composed of photons of energy and can penetrate matter.

Gamma (g) and X-rays.

18.  Through what routes can radiation be hazardous?  What are the 2 types of hazards?

Routes = inhalation, ingestion, skin contact, proximity.  Hazards = external, internal

19.  What agency controls the use of radioisotopes?

U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission

20.  Name some common types of hazards presented by machinery.

In-running nip points, crush points, pinch points.

21.  How is chronic noise-induced hearing loss characterized?

Declining sensitivity to frequencies above 2,000 Hz.

22.  What are OSHA limits on “noise” exposure for employees?

Limits noise exposure to 90 decibels measured on the A scale of a standard sound-level meter at slow response (dBA) averaged over an 8 h workshift.

23.  List some negative effects of noise.

Hearing loss, make speech difficult, cause loss of concentration, distract workers, increase fatigue.

24.  T/F  Ultrasonography is not covered by the OSHA noise standards.

False.  If the frequency is <20 kHz, it is covered by the OSHA noise standard.

25.  Employee knowledge of chem hazards & protective measures has been increased due to what 2 OSHA health & safety standards?

Hazard Communiciation Standard, Occupational Exposure to Hazardous Chemical in Laboratories (the laboratory standard)

26.  Name some hazardous properties of chemicals.

Flammability, corrosiveness, reactivity, explosivity, toxicity.

27.  What are the most common chem injuries assoc’d with animal care & use?

Burns and irritation of the skin, allergic response in sensitized people.

28.  Hazards assoc’d with experimental protocols are influenced by what 2 principal factors?

Dangerous qualities of the experimental agents; complexity or type of experimental operations.

29.  What are the recommended sequence of stages that should be considered in planning a safe experiment?

Evaluating hazards & assessing risks; management of chem; working with chem; working with equipment; disposal of chem; lab facilities; gov’t regulations of labs.

30.  T/F  Transmission of zoonotic disease in an animal facility that is not involved with infectious disease is rare.


31.  What does SALS stand for?

Subcommittee on Arbovirus Laboratory Safety.

32.  What factors go into the selection of an appropriate biosafety level?  Specifically, what characteristics of the infectious agent?

Severity of disease; mode of transmission; availability of protective immunization or effective therapy; relative risk of exposure created by manipulation in handling the agent & caring for infected animals.

33.  List & describe animal biosafety levels.

Table 3-3, p. 49.

ABSL1: Basic level of protection for well-characterized agents not known to cause disease in healthy humans.

ABSL2: Handles broad spectrum of moderate risk agents that cause human dz by ingestion, percutaneous, or mucous membrane exposure.

ABSL3: Agents the present risks of resp transmission; can cause serious & potentially lethal infection.

ABSL4: Exotic agents posing high indiv risk of life-threatening dz by aerosol route & for which no tx is available.


Chapter 4:  Allergens

1.  What estimated % of lab workers eventually develop occupation-related asthma?


2.  T/F Allergy is most often manifested by cough, wheezing, and shortness of breath when exposed to lab animals.

False.  Allergy is most often manifested by nasal symptoms, itchy eyes, and rashes.  Symptoms evolve over 1-2 y exp period.

3.  List risk groups for workers exposed to lab animals based on hx of allergic dz & sensitization to animal proteins.

Table 4-1, p. 52.

Normal – no evidence of allergic dz

Atopic – pre-existing allergic dz

Asymptomatic – IgE Abs to allergenic animal proteins

Symptomatic – Clin symptoms on exposure to allergenic animal proteins

4.  T/F In almost all asthmatic people with lab-animal allergy, nasal & eye symptoms preceded the development of asthma.


5.      Which of the following are examples of anaphylactic rxns?

a.       diffuse itching; hives; swelling of face, lips, tongue

b.      difficulty breathing due to laryngeal edema

c.       asthma with wheezing

d.      loss of consciousness due to shock

e.       A & B

f.        All of the above

f.  Anaphylactic rxns vary from mild generalized urticarial rxns to profound life-threatening rxns.

6.  Allergic rxns are mediated by what class of immunoglobulins?

IgE mediated rxns

7.  What is the most common route of exposure in lab animal allergy?

Airborne allergens

8.  Mast cells are most abundant in what sites?

Resp tract, GI tract, skin (main sites of allergic rxns).

9.  T/F An autosomal dominant trait with variable expression linked to genetic markers on chromosome 5 has been linked to people (atopics) more likely to develop IgE Abs to allergens.


10.  List types of allergic rxns to lab-animal allergens.

Table 4-2, p.53

Contact urticaria, allergic conjunctivitis, allergic rhinitis, asthma, anaphylaxis.

11.  What are the major sources of rat-allergen exposure?

Urine and saliva

12.  Name a major rat-urine allergen.

Rat n 1A (pre-albumin)

Rat n 1B (a2-euglobulin)

13.  What is a major mouse allergen?

Mus m 1 (urinary protein); analogous to Rat n 1B (80% homology)

14.  T/F Urine samples from mice contain 100x more Mus m 1 than serum.


15.  T/F Female mice excrete 4x more Mus m 1 than males.


16.  What are sources of allergens from guinea pigs?  What is the major source?

Dander, fur, saliva, urine.  Major source is urine.

17.  Sources of allergens from rabbits?  Which are major and which are minor?

Major glycoprotein allergen in fur.  Minor allergenic components in saliva and urine.

18.  T/F  Allergy to cats might predispose workers to the development of allergy to lab animals.


19.  Name the major cat allergen.  Where is it produced?

Protein Fel d 1.  Produced in sebaceous glands of skin and in saliva.

20.    Which of the following is false?

a.       Fel d 1 is found in all cats.

b.      Cross reactivity occurs throughout all species of cats.

c.       All cats shed similar amounts of allergen.

d.      Male cats might shed more than female cats.

e.       Some people can become sensitized to cat albumin.


21.    Which of the following does not decrease concentrations of cat allergen in the air?

a.       Use filtered vacuum cleaner

b.      Remove carpeting

c.       Run high-efficiency air cleaner

d.      Wash the cat

e.       Increase ventilation rate

e.  Simply increasing ventilation rates from 8 to 40 air changes per hour in a room containing 2 female cats did not reduce clearance of airborne cat allergen.

22.  Name dog allergen.  Sources of exposure to dog allergens?

Can f 1, dog albumin.

Saliva, hair, skin

23. T/F  Sensitization to primates is common.


24.  Name sources of cattle allergens.

Dander and urine

25.  T/F  Horses constitute a highly potent source of allergens.


26.  What are sources of horse allergens?

Dander, skin scrapings, albumin


27.  T/F  There is no evidence of cross sensitivity between deer & horse allergens.


28.  Hypersensitivity pneumonitis due to exposure to birds is due to what type of Ab?

People with hypersensitivity pneumonitis often have precipitating IgG Abs to the protein in question.

29.  List some ways to detect the presence of specific IgE Abs in humans.

Skin tests, RAST (radioallergosorbent test), ELISA

30.  Airborne-allergen load in an animal room depends on what?

Rate of production (# of animals), rate of removal (function of ventilation), relative humidity (increase RH, decrease airborne allergen conc).

31.  T/F Surgical (cloth, paper) disposable masks are effective in minimizing sensitization to lab animal allergens.


32.  Recommended PPE for symptomatic allergic workers?  Requirements to use these PPEs?

At a minimum, use of a dust-mist respirator certified by NIOSH; filtered airhood device.  Employees using respirators will need resp fit-testing and medical clearance.

33.  What does AAAAI stand for?

American Academy of Allergy, Asthma, and Immunology

34.  T/F  The use of immunotherapy as a means to protect workers from further symptoms has not been fully established.



Chapter 5 (pages 65-85) – ZOONOSES (up to but not including Bacterial Diseases)


1.  T or F.  Transmission of zoonotic diseases in the laboratory animal environment is uncommon.

2.  Vigilance for zoonoses is an important aspect of all _________________ transplantations.

3.  B-Virus in macaques causes a clinical disease similar to human:

A.     Influenza

B.     Measles

C.     Tuberculosis

D.     Herpes Simplex

4.  An ocular complication of B-Virus infection in macaques is_________________.

5.  Latency of the B-Virus in macaques is seen in the ganglia of sensory or motor (chose one) nerves serving the region in which the virus was introduced.

6.  Name three stressors that can induce B-Virus shedding from peripheral sites.

7.  What period in the macaque life cycle shows the highest incidence of B-Virus infection?

A.     Infancy

B.     Adolescence

C.     Old age

8.  T or F.  Although several species of New Word and Old World monkeys are known to succumb to fatal B-Virus infection, only macaques and chimpanzees are known to harbor B-Virus naturally.

9.  Tor F.  Fomite, as well as human-to-human, transmission has occurred with B-Virus infections in humans.

10.  The incubation period between initial exposure and onset of clinical signs ranges from:

A.     1 to 2 months

B.     1 to 7 days

C.     2 days to 1 month

D.     3 to 4 weeks

11.  Name one of two antiviral therapeutics used if a person has a history and symptoms consistent with B-Virus infection.

12.  Ebola hemorrhagic fever is caused by a __________ (type of virus).

13.  What was the name of the Ebola-like filovirus that came from macaques important into the United States from the Philippines during 1989?

14.  Name two important modes of transmission for Ebola that do not involve human to animal contact.

15.  Marburg-virus diseases have been recognized on only __________ occasions.

A.     Two

B.     Four

C.     Six

D.     Eight

16.  Hantavirus is caused by a _____________ (type of virus).

17.  Reservoirs for Hantaviruses are:

A.     Rodents

B.     Lagomorphs

C.     Primates

D.     Canines

18.  There is epidemiological evidence that __________ can become infected through rodent contact and potentially serve as a reservoir.

A.     Dogs

B.     Birds

C.     Fleas

D.     Cats

19.  T or F.  The form of Hantavirus known as nephropathia includes a severe, acute kidney failure from which patients rarely survive.

20.  People suspected of having the Hantavirus infection might benefit from intravenous ____________________ therapy initiated early in the course of the disease.

21.  Animal Biosafety Level _________ is recommended for working with experimentally infected rodent species known not to excrete the virus, while Biosafety Level __________ is recommended for working with experimentally infected rodent species (such as P. maniculatus) that do excrete the virus.

A.     1, 4

B.     2, 4

C.     1, 3

D.     2, 3

22.  Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus is a(n) _______________________ (type of virus).

23.  What type of mice poses a “special risk” for harboring silent, chronic infections of LCM and present a hazard to personnel?

24.  T or F.  The LCM virus can infect the fetus.

25.  Typical infection of LCM in humans results in a ____________ like disease, but has the potential to cause fatal ____________________ involvement.

A.     Measles, splenic

B.     Herpes, central nervous system

C.     Flu, central nervous system

D.     Hantavirus, kidney

26.  Animal Biosafety Level ___________ is recommended for work with infected hamsters.

A.     1

B.     2

C.     3

D.     4

27.  Monkeypox is caused by a __________________ (type of virus).

28.  Monkeypox produces a disease similar to:

A.     Small pox

B.     Influenza

C.     Chlamydia

D.     Plague

29.  T or F.  Vaccinia vaccination is not protective against monkeypox in humans and monkeys.

30.  T or F.  Orf is endemic in many sheep flocks and goat hers throughout the world.

31.  T or F.  Human to human contact has been observed with orf.

32.  T or F.  Vaccination of sheep and goats is effective in preventing orf.

33.  __________ are the reservoir for measles.

A.     Rodents

B.     Humans

C.     Monkeys

D.     Humans and Monkeys

34.  T or F.  The clinical signs of measles of monkeys is significantly different than in people.

35.  Newcastle diseases is caused by a __________________ (type of virus).

36.  Newcastle disease is caught from ______________.

A.     Birds

B.     Rodents

C.     Monkeys

D.     Felids

37.  Which of the following is not considered a primary clinical sign of Newcastle disease in humans?

A.     Follicular conjunctivitis

B.     Mild Fever

C.     Bronchiolitis

D.     Cardiomyopathy

38.  Hepatitis A virus is transmitted how?

A.     Fomites

B.     Aerosol

C.     Fecal-oral

39.  T or F.  Hepatitis A is much less severe in non-human monkeys.

40.  Animal Biosafety Level _________ is recommended for activities using naturally or experimentally infected monkeys with Hepatitis B, C, D, and E.

41.  The seroprevalence of SIV in wild-caught African green monkeys is about ________, or even higher.

A.     15%

B.     20%

C.     25%

D.     30%

42.  What is the result of SIV infection in humans?

A.     Acute malaise, leading to a prolonged recovery period

B.     Flue like symptoms

C.     Seroconversion

D.     Death

43.  Name two main wild-mammal rabies reservoirs in the United States.

44.  The rabies virus has been transmitted in human-to-human __________ transplants.

A.     Heart

B.     Corneal

C.     Lung

D.     Kidney

45.  What samples, other than brain, can be used for rabies diagnosis with specific immunofluorescent antibody staining?

46.  Which animal is highly susceptible to acquiring influenza from humans in the laboratory setting?

A.     Ferrets

B.     Swine

C.     Ducks

D.     Dogs

47.  Arboviruses have what types of vectors?

A.     Avian

B.     Rodent

C.     Monkey

D.     Atrhropod

48.  What is the causative agent of Q Fever?

49.  The placenta of an infected ewe can harbor upwards of __________ Q Fever causative organisms per gram of tissue.

            A.  107

B.     108

C.     109

D.     105

50.  T or F.  The causative organism of Q Fever is resistant to desiccation and many remain in the environment for long periods of time.

51.  Persons with what type of problems should not work with Q Fever?

A.     Asthma

B.     High blood pressure

C.     Valvular heart disease

D.     Glomerulonephritis

52.  Rodents experimentally infected with Q Fever should be used under Animal Biosafety level __________ conditions.

53.What is the organism associated with cat-scratch fever?

54.  What organisms associated with cats has also been shown to be capable of transmitting the organism between cats?


1.      T

2.      xenograft

3.      D

4.      corneal ulcer or keratoconjunctivitis

5.      sensory

6.      ultraviolet irradiation; immunosuppression; disruption of social hierarchy; stressful experimental conditions

7.      B

8.      F

9.      T

10.  C

11.  acyclovir or ganciclovir

12.  filovirus

13.  Ebola-Reston

14.  sexual contact and nosocomial infection

15.  B

16.  Bunyavirus

17.  A

18.  D

19.  F

20.  ribavirin

21.  B

22.  arenavirus

23.  athymic, SCID, and other immunodeficient mice

24.  T

25.  C

26.  C

27.  orthopoxvirus

28.  A

29.  F

30.  T

31.  T

32.  T

33.  B

34.  F

35.  paramyxovirus

36.  A

37.  D

38.  C

39.  T

40.  2

41.  D

42.  C

43.  raccoons, skunks, bats, foxes, or wild-dogs (Texas)

44.  B

45.  Corneal smears, mucosal scrapings, frozen skin biopsy specimens

46.  A

47.  D

48.  Coxiella burnetii

49.  C

50.  T

51.  C

52.  3

53.  Bartonella henselae

54.  Fleas


Chapter 5 (pages 85-105) - ZOONOSES (Starting with Bacterial Disease to the end of the chapter)



1.      T or F        Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by acid-fast bacilli of the genus Mycobacterium

2.      Name the 3 main reservoirs for TB?

3.      List 3 additional laboratory animals susceptible to TB infection?

4.      Which species of non-human primates (NHP) are the most sensitive to TB?

5.      What is the incidence of TB in NHPs imported to the United States?

a.       0.1%

b.      0.4%

c.       1.0%

d.      4.0%

6.      What is the mode of transmission of TB?

7.      TB most commonly affects which system?

a.       Pulmonary

b.      Enteric

c.       Cardiovascular

d.      Neurologic

8.      What is the incubation period for TB (from exposure to development of primary lesion or positive skin reaction)

a.       1-8 weeks

b.      4-12 weeks

c.       2-6 weeks

d.      >12 weeks

9.      How is TB diagnosed (in humans and NHPs)?

10.   Which Animal Biosafety Level (ABSL) is recommended for TB infected animals?

11.  T or F        Vaccination of NHPs with the BCG strain of M. bovis prevents the

development of clinical disease but not infection.

12.  T or F        Animals vaccinated for TB will become skin test positive

13.  Which species of Chlamydia is considered a zoonotic pathogen?

a.       C. psittaci

b.      C. trachomatis

c.       C. pneumoniae

14.  T or F        Symptoms of psittacosis are limited to the respiratory system

15.  ____________  reactivates enteric shedding and symptoms of psittacosis.

16.  Chlamydia is spread via the following:

a.       Exudates

b.      Secretions

c.       Aerosol

d.      Direct contact of fecal material

e.       All of the above

17.  Which source of Chlamydia is more pathogenic for humans:

a.       Infections from other mammals

b.      Infections from avian strains

18.  How is psittacosis diagnosed?

19.  Which ABSL is recommended for psittacosis infections?

20.  Name the 2 organisms associated with rat bite fever.

21.  What is the mode of transmission of rat bite fever?

22.  Arthritis develops in what percentage of rat bite fever cases caused by Streptococcus?

a.       0.5%

b.      10%

c.       25%

d.      50%

23.  T or F        Both causative agents of rat bite fever can be isolated from the joint fluid

24.  What is the causative agent of plague?

25.  Most human cases of plague are due to (pick all that apply):

a.       Contact with infected rodents

b.      Flea bites

c.       Bird droppings

d.      Aerosol

26.  Which form of plague is associated with lymphadenopathy?

a.       Bubonic

b.      Septicemic

27.  Which form of plague affects multiple organs including the lungs and meninges?

a.       Bubonic

b.      Septicemic

28.  T or F        The bubonic form of plague can progress to the septicemic form?

29.  Early rapid diagnosis of plague is via direct microscopic exam, fluorescent antibody of tissue and Ag-capture ELISA.  How is the diagnosis confirmed?

30.  Which ABSL is recommended for animals with plague?

31.  T or F        Brucellosis in agricultural species has a high incidence

32.  Brucella canis is a zoonotic concern in dog production colonies.  What is the percentage of the population affected?

a.       0-1%

b.      1-6%

c.       6-10%

d.      10-15%

33.  Most human cases of B. canis are associated with what condition in the canine patient?

a.       Coughing/aerosolized droplets

b.      Diarrhea/fecal contact

c.       Exudative dermatitis/contact with pustules

d.      Abortion/contact with placental tissue

34.  T or F        Infection with B. canis does not result in subclinical infection

35.  How is Brucellosis diagnosed?

36.  ABSL 3 is recommended for studies involving with 4 species of Brucella?

37.  Pathogenic leptospires belong to which species of Leptospirosis?

38.  Match the predominant Leptospirosis serovars (in the US) to the appropriate reservoir host(s):

1.      icterohemorrhagia                                    a.  cattle

2.      pomona                                                   b.  swine

3.      hardjo                                                     c.  raccoons

4.      canicola                                                   d.  rats & mice

5.      autumnalis                                                e.  rats & dogs

6.      bratislava                                     f. swine

7.      ballum                                                     g.  dogs

39.  How are leptospires shed?

40.  How is leptospirosis transmitted?

a.       Through skin abrasions

b.      Contact with mucous membranes

c.       Inhalation of infectious droplets

d.      Ingestion

e.       All of the above

f.        A & B only

41.  How is Leptospirosis diagnosed?

42.  T or F        Campylobacter is the leading cause of diarrhea in humans and animals

43.  Name the route of transmission of Campylobacter.

44.  Name 2 symptoms of Campylobacter infection.

45.  Which of the following are unusual complications of Campylobacteriosis?

a.       Typhoid-like syndrome

b.      Reactive arthritis

c.       Interstitial nephritis

d.      Guillain-Barre syndrome

e.       Febrile convulsions, meningitis

f.        All of the above

46.  How is Campylobacter diagnosed?

47.  T or F        Treatment of Campylobacter typically eliminates the carrier state as well.

48.  Which ABSL is recommended for Campylobacteriosis?

49.  Along with management practices to exclude recontamination of colonies, what has led to most laboratory rodent populations being free of salmonella?

a.       Antibiotics in the drinking water

b.      Cesarean rederivation

c.       Barrier housing

d.      Testing and culling positive animals

50.  T or F        Salmonellae is nearly ubiquitous in reptiles

51.  The restriction of what 2 things led to the control of Salmonellosis in turtles?

52.  How is Salmonella transmitted?

53.  How is Salmonella diagnosed?

54.  T or F        Antibiotic treatment of Salmonella may prolong the period of


55.  Which ABSL is recommended with Salmonellosis?

56.  Which species is the main reservoir for Shigella infection?

a.       NHPs

b.      Swine

c.       Sheep

d.      Birds

57.  Which 3 species of Shigella are pathogenic for humans?

58.  How is Shigella transmitted?

59.  How many Shigella organisms are required to produce infection?

a.       1-50

b.      10-100

c.       100-1000

d.      >1000

60.  Bacteremia is uncommon with which organism?

a.       Shigella

b.      Salmonella

61.  How is Shigella diagnosed?

62.  Which ABSL is recommended with Shigellosis?

63.  Yersinia enterocolitica and Y. pseudotuberculosis are associated with enteric Yersiniosis.  Host species include rodents, rabbits, pigs, sheep, cattle, horses, dogs, and cats.  Which of these 2 species also include birds as host species?

a.       Y. enterocolitica

b.      Y. pseudotuberculosis

64.  How is Yersinia transmitted?

65.  How is Yersinia diagnosed?

66.  Name the definitive host of Toxoplasma gondii.

67.  Toxoplasma gondii is a:

a.       Ricketssial organism

b.      Spirochete

c.       Coccidian parasite

68.  T or F        Cats support all phases of T.gondii in their intestinal tract

69.  Humans can contract toxoplasmosis by:

a.       Contact with materials contaminated by oocysts in cat feces

b.      Ingestion of bradyzoites or cystozoites

c.       A & B

70.  Toxoplasmosis can have serious effects on what 2 groups of people?

71.  T or F        T. gondii crosses the placenta in humans

72.  How is Toxoplasmosis diagnosed?

73.  Name 2 precautions a pregnant woman can take to minimize exposure to T. gondii when handling cat feces?

74.  Which species are most likely to be a zoonotic concern for Giardia?

a.       NHPs, sheep, dogs

b.      Dogs, cats, swine

c.       Swine, sheep, NHPs

d.      Dogs, cats, NHPs

75.  How is Giardia transmitted?

76.  T or F        Giardiasis is not associated with malabsorption

77.  How is Giardia diagnosed?

78.  T or F        Cryptosporidium is cross-infective and is known to affect mammals, birds,

and fish

79.  How is Cryptosporidium transmitted?

80.  T or F        Cryptosporidium only causes clinical disease in AIDS patients

81.  How is Cryptosporidiosis diagnosed?

82.  What species is the reservoir for Entamoeba?

a.       Humans

b.      Cattle

c.       Dogs

d.      Sheep

83.  How is Entamoeba transmitted?

84.  T or F        Amebiasis is limited to the GI tract

85.  How is Entamoeba diagnosed?

86.  Which 2 species are the main reservoirs for human infection by Balantidium coli?

a.       Swine and goats

b.      NHPs and dogs

c.       NHPs and swine

d.      Dogs and goats

87.  How is Balantidium transmitted?

88.  Match the dermatophyte with the group in which it has the highest prevalence:

1.      Microsporum canis                                  a.  rodents and rabbits

2.      Trichophyton mentagrophytes                  b.  livestock

3.      Trichophyton verrucosum             c.  dogs, cats, NHPs

89.  How is dermatophyte infection transmitted?

90.  Dermatophytes are classified according to optimal substrates-list all 3:

91.  How is dermatomycosis diagnosed?

92.  What ABSL is recommended for dermatomycoses?

93.  Name the causative agent of Sporotrichosis.

94.  How are most cases of Sporotrichosis transmitted?

a.       Direct inoculation of fungus into bites or skin wounds

b.      Inhalation of fungal spores

c.       Ingestion

95.  T or F        Humans with Sporotrichosis usually develop multiple pustules.

96.  What ABSL is recommended for Sporotrichosis?

97.  T or F        The indirect life cycles and long ova embryonation time of most helminths

makes transmission (zoonoses) unlikely in a lab animal setting.

98.  Which is the host of Ascaris lumbricoides?

a.       Big horn sheep

b.      Rabbits

c.       Dogs

d.      Old World Primates

99.  Which stage of A. lumbricoides is infectious to humans?

a.       Embryonated egg

b.      Larva

c.       Cysticercoid

100.          Name the hosts of Hymenolepsis nana

a.       Rats, mice

b.      Hamster

c.       NHPs

d.      All of the above

101.          T or F     Human infection with H. nana requires an intermediate host

102.          Which of the following has only the dog for a host (the other 4 are hosted by both dogs and cats)

a.       Ancylostoma braziliense

b.      Ancylostoma caninum

c.       Ancylostoma duodenale

d.      Necator Americans

e.       Uncinaria stenocephala

103.          Which parasite causes cutaneous larval migrans?

a.       Hookworms

b.      Roundworms

104.          What syndrome (in humans) is caused by Toxocara spp?

105.          Match the parasite with its host species

1.      Toxocara canis                a.  dog, cat

2.      Toxocara cati                  b.  dog

3.      Toxocara leonine c.  cat

106.          Name the mode of transmission for Strongyloides.

107.          T or F     Heavy infection with Oesophagostomus can produce anemia

108.          T or F     Heavy infectious with Trichostrongylus can produce diarrhea

109.          Match the flea vector to the appropriate disease:

1.      Ctenocephalides felis/canis           a.  Hymenolepsis diminuta and nana

2.      Xenopsylla cheopsis                    b.  H. nana, H. diminuta, R. mooseri

3.      Nasopsyllus fasciatus                   c.  H. diminuta, Dipyllidium


110.          Match the mite vector with the disease:

1.      Ornithonyssus bacoti                    a. Western Equine Encephalitis Virus,

     Rickettsia mooseri

2.      Allodermanyssus sanguineus         b.  Rickettsia akari

111.          Rhipicephalus sanguineus and Dermacentor spp are vectors for which 3 diseases?

112.          Which tick is a vector for Borrelia burgdorferi and Babesia microtis?


1.      T

2.      Cattle, birds, humans

3.      NHPs, swine, sheep, goat, rabbits, cats, dogs, ferrets

4.      macaques

5.      B

6.      Aerosols from infected animals or tissues, also aerosols from dirty bedding, coughing, feces, skin exudates, ingestion or percutaneous

7.      A

8.      B

9.      intradermal skin test, chest rads, acid fast bacilli in sputum smears

10.  3

11.  T

12.  T

13.  A

14.  F

15.  Stress

16.  E

17.  B

18.  serologic tests for Ab or isolation of organism

19.  2

20.  Streptobacillus moniliformis & Spirillum minor

21.  bite wounds inoculated with nasopharyngeal secretions (also via blood of experimentally infected animals)

22.  D

23.  F

24.  Yersinia pestis

25.  A & B

26.  A

27.  B

28.  T

29.  culture and ID or serial Ab titers demonstrating at least a fourfold increase

30.  2

31.  F

32.  B

33.  D

34.  F

35.  organism isolation, rising Ab titers

36.  canis, abortus, melitensis, suis

37.  1-e, 2-b or f, 3-a, 4-g, 5-c, 6-b or f, 7-d (L ballum also found in skunks, rabbits, opossums, feral cats)

38.  L. interrogans

39.  in the urine of infected animals

40.  E

41.  rising Ab titers, organism isolation

42.  T

43.  fecal-oral

44.  watery diarrhea (with possible blood, mucus, leukocytes), abdominal pain, fever, nausea/vomiting

45.  F

46.  organism isolation

47.  F

48.  2

49.  B

50.  T

51.  sale of viable turtle eggs and sale of live turtles by carapace length (only >10.2cm)

52.  fecal-oral

53.  culture and ID

54.  T

55.  2

56.  A

57.  flexneri, sonnei, dysenteriae

58.  direct or indirect fecal-oral

59.  B

60.  A

61.  culture and ID

62.  2

63.  B

64.  fecal-oral

65.  culture and ID

66.  felines

67.  C

68.  T

69.  C

70.  pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals

71.  T

72.  isolate in culture, rising Ab titers

73.  wear gloves, empty litter before sporocysts become infective (or avoid handling cat feces at all)

74.  D

75.  fecal-oral

76.  F

77.  demonstration of cysts or trophozoites in stool or duodenal aspirates

78.  T

79.  fecal-oral

80.  F

81.  demonstrate organism in stool by immunofluorescence

82.  A

83.  fecal-oral

84.  F

85.  demonstrate cysts or trophozoites in fresh feces

86.  C

87.  fecal-oral

88.  3-b, 2-a, 1-c

89.  skin to skin contact (or fomite to skin contact)

90.  geophilic (soil), zoophilic (animal), anthropophilic (human)

91.  fungal culture and ID (definitive), scrapings of active lesions and Woods lamp and DTM (presumptive)

92.  2

93.  Sporothrix schenckii

94.  A

95.  F

96.  2

97.  T

98.  D

99.  A

100.          D

101.          F

102.          B

103.          A

104.          visceral larval migrans

105.          1-b, 2-c, 3-a

106.          oral and transcutaneous

107.          T

108.          T

109.          1-c, 2-a, 3-b

110.          1-a, 2-b

111.          Rickettsia rickettsia, Francisella tularensis, Ehrlichia canis

112.          Ixodes dammini


Chapter 6:  Principal Elements of an Occupational Health and Safety Program

1.  List key elements of effective OHS program.

Administrative procedures; facility design & occupation; exposure control; education & training; occupational health-care services; equipment performances; information management; emergency procedures; program evaluation

2.  How are exposures to occupational hazards controlled?

Through the application of engineering controls, work practices, and use of personal protective equipment (PPE).

3.  What are engineering controls?  Give some examples.

Combination of safety equipment & physical features of the facility that help to minimize hazardous exposures of personnel & the surrounding environment.  Examples:  barriers, airlocks, chem fume hoods, biological safety cabinets, isolation cages.

4.  T/F  Work practices are the most important element in controlling exposures.


5.  List general categories of good work practices.

Practices to reduce:  # of employees at risk of exposure; exposures by direct & indirect contact; percutaneous exposures; exposure by ingestion; exposure by inhalation.

6.  What is the most commonly used personal protective clothing?


7.  T/F  Employees who require resp protection should be enrolled in a resp program that is in compliance with OSHA standards.


8.  Successful training & education programs for OHS have what 3 attributes?

1.       Occupational health & safety goals of institution & how they will be achieved are clearly communicated to employees.

2.       Employees are fully apprised of all relevant hazards & control strategies pertaining to their general work assignments.

3.       Supervisors in animal care & research groups are actively involved in ensuring that employees have acquired necessary skills & attitudes to work safely.

9.  What does ANSI stand for?

American National Standards Institute

10.  ANSI recommendations for chemical fume hoods?

1.         Routine performance test should be conducted on every fume hood at least annually or whenever a substantial change has been made in operational characteristics of system.

2.         Each hood should maintain an average face velocity of 80-120 ft/min with no face velocity measurement more than 20% greater/lesser than average.

3.         New & remodeled hoods should be equipped with a flow-measuring device.

11.  How frequently should biological safety cabinets be tested and certified?  What agency provides performance certification criteria?

After installation, whenever stationary cabinet is moved, and at least once a year.

National Sanitation Foundation (NSF)

12.  How often should HEPA filtration units be monitored?

At least once a year.

13. What 3 general subjects should be considered when evaluating an institution’s OHS program?

1.      Institution’s injury & illness experience

2.      It’s regulatory compliance performance

3.      Results of efforts to promote health & safety through continuing interactions among the major participants in the OHS programs.





Chapter 7 “Occupational Health Care Services”


1)      Name three non-animal care related positions that could potentially need occupational health and safety training/health care needs as part of an animal facility’s occupational health and safety program.

2)      What is animal facility management suppose to communicate to contract employees who participate in the animal care and use program?

3)      What federal law mandates that employers provide a safe and healthful workplace for their employees?

a.       Workers Compensation

b.      Animal Welfare Act

c.       Occupational Safety and Health Act

d.      Food and Drug Act

4)      The _____________________ requires institutions that receive federal funds to provide occupational health care services to employees who work in laboratory animal facilities that have substantial animal contact.

a.       Occupational Safety and Health Act.

b.      Public Health Service Policy on the Human Care and Use of Laboratory Animals

c.       Animal Welfare Act

d.      Health Research Extension Act

      5)  T or F.  The occupational health history of previous employees needs to be

included in consideration when assessing health risks in a research animal facility.

      6)  When is serologic surveillance recommended?

7)      Name three vaccines that might be required when working in a research animal facility.

8)      What federal form is used to record occupational illness or injury incidents?

9)      T or F.  Institutions do not need to educate workers about early warning signs of occupational illnesses or injuries, only clear-cut symptoms.

10)  T or F.  Potential hazards in the workplace should not be discussed during preplacement medical evaluations.

11)  T or F.  Physical examinations need not be a routine part of periodic medical evaluations.

12)  What activity allows for reviews of injuries and illnesses (work-related or personal) not being followed by the occupational health care service and can facilitate returning to the worksite?

a.       Annual physical examinations

b.      Serologic surveillance

c.       Semi-annual physical examinations

d.      Return-to-work examinations

13)  Whose responsibility is it to maintain medical records related to an employee’s participate in a health care service activity?

a.       Employer

b.      Employee

c.       Contract medical service

d.      Nearby hospital

14)  What is the term for the collection and frozen storage of serum samples drawn from employees who might be at risk for occupational acquired infections?

a.       Serologic surveillance

b.      Serologic risk assessment

c.       Period serologic evaluation

d.      Serum-banking

15)  T or F.  The Centers for Disease Control and the NIH recommend serum-banking and serologic surveillance when a substantial risk of occupational illness is associated with an agent under study and methods are available to measure immunologic response top the agent.

16)  T or F.  The collection and storage of employee serum should be and can be performed in the absence of a functioning occupational health and safety program.

17)  How likely is it that information useful to an occupational health and safety program will be obtained from exit interviews?

a.       Highly likely

b.      Possible

c.       Unlikely

18)  T or F.  Occupational health care service providers should tour the facility in order to better contribute to the institutions occupational health & safety program.


1.      Janitors/housekeepers, security officers, maintenance personnel, clerical or other support staff

2.      The institution with responsibility for the space where the contract workers work is obliged to communicate to the contractor the hazards and risks present in the work site and the rules and procedures for the maintenance of a safe environment.

3.      C

4.      B

5.      T

6.      Serologic surveillance is recommended where there is a substantial risk of occupationally acquired infection with the agent under study and methods are available to measure immunological response to the agent.

7.      Hepatitis B, rabies, yellow fever, poliomyelitis, tetanus, diphtheria

8.      OSHA 200 log

9.      F

10.  F

11.  T

12.  D

13.  A

14.  D

15.  T

16.  F

17.  C

18.  T